Shade7x
10-22-2003, 06:33 AM
Well I was doing some calculations tonight, and figured out something reasonably interesting, but I think it may be wrong somehow.
Let's say you have $1025 in start up capital and you want to use the Martingale betting system at a Las Vegas Blackjack table. Let's say you play reasonably average rules which gives you a 47.49% chance of winning each hand, ignoring ties.
So then, the chance of any consecutive loss is 47.49% X 47.49%. Consequently, the chances of any....say.....10 consecutive loses is 47.49% ^ 10, which just so happens to approximately equal 0.14%.
By that time, you've made 10 dollars. So using Martingale and $1025 in start up capital, you have a 0.9985% chance of making 10 dollars and if you didn't by some cosmic fluke, you'd lose every bit of the $1025.
What about if you wanted to make 100 dollars? That would be 10 SETS of 10 hands, right? Well we know that there is a 99.85% chance we won't lose 10 times in a row on 10 hands, so to calculate risk for 100 dollars gain, we should figure 10 SETS of 10 hands, for a grand total of 100 hands and dollars. That means that the correct probability for not losing everything during our 'run' is 98%, I think.
If THAT's true then it's true that for $1,000 dollars, you'd need to go through 100 sets of 10 blackjack hands (for this $1,000 eventual total profit, but you'd need to play 1,000 blackjack hands over the course of a vacation).
And now when we take .9985 to the 100th power we find that they have a 86.264% chance of pulling something like this off.....right?
Truth is, I'm starting to see one big glaring flaw in my math; can you help me figure out what it is?
Let's say you have $1025 in start up capital and you want to use the Martingale betting system at a Las Vegas Blackjack table. Let's say you play reasonably average rules which gives you a 47.49% chance of winning each hand, ignoring ties.
So then, the chance of any consecutive loss is 47.49% X 47.49%. Consequently, the chances of any....say.....10 consecutive loses is 47.49% ^ 10, which just so happens to approximately equal 0.14%.
By that time, you've made 10 dollars. So using Martingale and $1025 in start up capital, you have a 0.9985% chance of making 10 dollars and if you didn't by some cosmic fluke, you'd lose every bit of the $1025.
What about if you wanted to make 100 dollars? That would be 10 SETS of 10 hands, right? Well we know that there is a 99.85% chance we won't lose 10 times in a row on 10 hands, so to calculate risk for 100 dollars gain, we should figure 10 SETS of 10 hands, for a grand total of 100 hands and dollars. That means that the correct probability for not losing everything during our 'run' is 98%, I think.
If THAT's true then it's true that for $1,000 dollars, you'd need to go through 100 sets of 10 blackjack hands (for this $1,000 eventual total profit, but you'd need to play 1,000 blackjack hands over the course of a vacation).
And now when we take .9985 to the 100th power we find that they have a 86.264% chance of pulling something like this off.....right?
Truth is, I'm starting to see one big glaring flaw in my math; can you help me figure out what it is?